CFI Regulations
Table of Contents
- Definitions and Abbreviations
- Accident Reports
- Required Documents
- Medical Certificates
- Student Pilot Certification
- Recreational Pilot Certification
- Private Pilot Certification
- Commercial Pilot Certification
- Ground and Flight Instructor Certification
- Flight Instruction, Reviews and Records
- Required Endorsements
- Pilot Tests
- Presolo Requirements
- Recency of Experience
- Change of Permanent Mailing Address
- Glider Towing
- Emergency Deviation from Rules
- Preflight Planning
- Use of Seatbelts
- Alcohol and Drugs
- Parachutes
- Safety Pilot Requirements
- Fuel Reserve Requirements
- Transponder Requirements
- Minimum Equipment Lists
- Supplemental Oxygen
- Lighting Requirements
- Emergency Locator Transmitter
- Formation Flights and Right-of-Way
- Maximum Authorized Speeds
- Acrobatic Flight
- Distance from Obstructions
- Flight Plan Airspeed
- Flight from Noncontrolled Airports
- VFR Cruising Altitudes
- Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance and Alterations
- Rotorcraft Regulations
- Gyroplane Regulations
- Glider Regulations
Definitions and Abbreviations
A crewmember is a person assigned to duty in the aircraft during flight. This includes pilots, flight engineers, navigators, flight attendants or anyone else assigned to duty in the airplane.
Operational control with respect to a flight, means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
Stopway is an area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. It cannot be used as part of the takeoff distance but can be considered as part of the accelerate-stop distance.
V2 (Takeoff Safety Speed) ensures that the airplane can maintain an acceptable climb gradient with the critical engine inoperative.
Accident Reports
Although "FAR" is used as the acronym for "Federal Aviation Regulations," and found throughout the regulations themselves and hundreds of other publications, the FAA is now actively discouraging its use. "FAR" also means "Federal Acquisition Regulations." To eliminate any possible confusion, the FAA cites the federal aviation regulations with reference to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations. For example, "FAR Part 91.3" is referenced as "14 CFR Part 91 Section 3."
The operator of an aircraft shall immediately, and by the most expeditious means available, notify the nearest National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) field office when an aircraft accident occurs. The operator of the involved aircraft shall file a report within 10 days after an accident. An aircraft accident is defined as an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage. Substantial damage is defined as damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component.
A serious injury, according to the NTSB, means any injury which:
1. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date of the injury;
2. Results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose);
3. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage;
4. Involves any internal organ; or
5. Involves second- or third-degree burns affecting more than 5% of the body surface.
A report on an incident for which notification is required by NTSB §830.5(a) shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the board. An immediate notification is also required for any incident involving:
1. Flight control system malfunction or failure;
2. Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness;
3. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes;
4. Inflight fire;
5. Aircraft inflight collision;
6. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair or fair market value in the event of total loss.
Required Documents
No person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of United States registry unless a current pilot certificate is in his/her possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft.
Except for balloon pilots piloting balloons and glider pilots piloting gliders, no person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft unless an appropriate current medical certificate is in his/her possession, or readily accessible in the aircraft.
Except as provided in 14 CFR §91.715, no person may operate a civil aircraft unless it has within it the following:
1. An appropriate and current airworthiness certificate
2. A copy of the applicable operations specifications (operating limitations)
3. A registration certificate issued to its owner
No person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft for which an Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight manual is required by 14 CFR §21.5 unless there is available in the aircraft a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards or any combination thereof.
Each certificate holder's manual must contain enroute flight, navigation, and communication procedures for the dispatch, release or continuance of flight if any item of equipment required for the particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route.
When a cockpit voice recorder is required on an airplane, it must be operated continuously from the start of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight), to completion of the final checklist at the termination of flight. Information recorded more than 30 minutes earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated.
Medical Certificates
Student pilot, recreational pilot, and private pilot operations, other than glider and balloon pilots, require a Third-Class Medical Certificate. A Third-Class Medical Certificate expires at the end of:
1. The 60th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination; or
2. The 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.
The holder of a Second-Class Medical Certificate may exercise commercial privileges during the first 12 calendar months, but the certificate is valid only for private pilot privileges during the following (12 or 48) calendar months, depending on the applicant's age.
The holder of a First-Class Medical Certificate may exercise Airline Transport Pilot privileges during the first (6 or 12) calendar months, commercial privileges during the following (6 or 0) calendar months, and private pilot privileges during the following (12 or 48) calendar months, depending on the applicant's age. To state another way, a medical certificate may last 6 months to a year with 1st-class privileges, 12 months (from the date of the examination) with 2nd-class privileges, and 2 or 5 years with 3rd-class privileges - depending on whether the applicants is above or below 40 years of age.
Each type of medical certificate is valid through the last day of the month (of the month it expires), regardless of the day the physical examination was given.
Student Pilot Certification
A Student Pilot Certificate expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it is issued. To be eligible for a Student Pilot Certificate limited to airplanes, an applicant must be at least 16 years of age.
A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in solo flight unless the Student Pilot Certificate is endorsed, and unless within the preceding 90 days his/her pilot logbook has been endorsed by an authorized flight instructor who has provided instruction in the make and model of aircraft in which the solo flight is made, and who finds that the applicant is competent to make a safe solo flight in that aircraft.
A student pilot may not operate an aircraft in a solo cross-country flight, nor may he/she, except in an emergency, make a solo flight landing at any point other than the airport of takeoff, until he/she meets the requirements prescribed in Part 61. However, an authorized flight instructor may allow a student to practice solo takeoffs and landings at another airport within 25 NM from the airport at which the student receives instruction, if the instructor finds the student competent to make those landings and takeoffs, and the flight training specific to the destination airport (including the route to and from, takeoffs and landings, and traffic pattern entry and exit) has taken place. Also, the instructor must have flown with that student prior to authorizing those takeoffs and landings, and endorsed the student pilot's logbook accordingly.
The term cross-country flight means a flight beyond a radius of 25 nautical miles from the point of takeoff. A flight instructor must endorse a student pilot's logbook for solo cross-country flights. There are three types of these endorsements:
1. An endorsement in the student pilot's logbook that the instructor has reviewed the preflight planning and preparation for each solo cross-country flight, and the pilot is prepared to make the flight safely under the known circumstances and the conditions listed by the instructor in the logbook.
2. The instructor may also endorse the logbook for repeated solo cross-country flights under stipulated conditions over a course of not more than 50 nautical miles from the point of departure if he/she has given the student flight instruction in both directions over the route, including takeoffs and landings at the airports to be used.
3. The student pilot certificate must be endorsed for cross-country operations.
Prior to being authorized to conduct a solo flight, a student pilot must have received and logged instruction in the applicable maneuvers and procedures for the make and model of aircraft to be flown in solo flight, and must have demonstrated proficiency to an acceptable performance level as judged by the instructor who endorses the student's pilot certificate. As appropriate to the aircraft to be flown in solo flight, the student pilot must have received presolo flight training in:
1. Flight preparation procedures, including preflight inspections, powerplant operation, and aircraft systems
2. Taxiing or surface operations, including runups
3. Takeoffs and landings, including normal and crosswind
4. Straight-and-level flight and turns in both directions
5. Climbs and climbing turns
6. Airport traffic patterns, including entry and departure procedure, and collision, wind shear, and wake turbulence avoidance
7. Descents with and without turns, using high and low drag configurations
8. Flight at various airspeeds from cruise to slow flight
9. Stall entries from various flight attitudes and power combinations with recovery initiated at the first indication of a stall, and recovery from a full stall
10. Emergency procedures and equipment malfunctions
11. Ground reference maneuvers
12. Approaches to a landing area with simulated engine malfunctions
13. Slips to a landing
14. Go-arounds
Recreational Pilot Certification
The Recreational Pilot Certificate fits between the Student and Private Pilot Certificates. Recreational pilot limitations include: may not carry more than one passenger, pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger (provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenses, or aircraft rental fees), fly an aircraft with more than 4 seats or with more than 180 HP nor with retractable landing gear, demonstrate an aircraft to a prospective buyer, fly between sunset and sunrise, or fly in airspace in which communication with air traffic control is required. Recreational pilots may fly beyond 50 NM from the departure airport with training and endorsements from an authorized instructor.
To be eligible for a Recreational Pilot Certificate, a person must be at least 17 years of age and must hold at least a current Third-Class Medical Certificate.
A recreational pilot who has logged fewer than 400 flight hours and who has not logged pilot-in-command time in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days may not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft until he/she has received flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who certifies in the pilot's logbook that the pilot is competent to act as pilot-in-command of the aircraft.
Private Pilot Certification
To be eligible for a Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating, a person must be at least 17 years of age, and hold at least a current Third-Class Medical Certificate. An applicant for a Private Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating must have had at least a total of 40 hours of flight instruction and solo flight time, which must include the following:
1. 3 hours of night instruction, including 10 takeoffs and landings and one cross-country flight over 100 NM
2. 3 hours of cross-country instruction, and 3 hours of instrument instruction from an authorized flight instructor and 5 hours of solo cross-country flight, each flight with a landing at a point more than 50 NM from the original departure point. One flight must be at least 150 NM, with landings at a minimum of 3 points, one of which is at least 50 NM from the original departure point.
A private pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft used in a passenger-carrying airlift sponsored by a charitable organization and for which the passengers make a donation to the organization, if he/she has logged at least 200 hours of flight time.
Commercial Pilot Certification
To be eligible for a Commercial Pilot Certificate, a person must be at least 18 years of age, and must hold at least a valid Third-Class Medical Certificate. A Second-Class Medical Certificate is required to exercise commercial pilot privileges. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an airplane rating must have a total of at least 250 hours of flight time as a pilot. This must include a total of at least 50 hours as pilot-in-command of cross-country flights.
A commercial airplane pilot must hold an instrument rating (airplane), or the Commercial Pilot Certificate is endorsed with a limitation prohibiting the carriage of passengers for hire in airplanes on cross-country flights of more than 50 nautical miles or at night.
Ground and Flight Instructor Certification
A Flight Instructor Certificate expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was last issued or renewed. An applicant for a Flight Instructor Certificate must have received flight instruction from a flight instructor who has held a Flight Instructor Certificate during the 24 months immediately preceding the date the instruction is given, who meets the general requirements for a Flight Instructor Certificate, and who has given at least 200 hours of flight instruction. A person whose Flight Instructor Certificate is suspended may not apply for any rating to be added to that certificate during the period of suspension.
Each certificated flight instructor must sign the logbook for each person to whom he/she has given flight or ground instruction and specify in that book the amount of time and the date on which it was given. In addition, he/she shall maintain a record in his/her flight instructor logbook or in a separate document containing the following (the record required by this section shall be retained by the flight instructor separately or in his/her logbook for at least 3 years):
1. The name of each person whose logbook or student pilot certificate he/she has endorsed for solo flight privileges. The record must include the type and date of each endorsement.
2. The name of each person for whom he/she has signed a certification for a written, flight, or practical test, including the kind of test, date of his/her certification, and the result of the test.
The holder of a Flight Instructor Certificate who applies for an additional rating on that certificate must have had at least 15 hours as pilot-in-command in the category and class of aircraft appropriate to the rating sought.
The holder of a Flight Instructor Certificate may not conduct more than 8 hours of flight instruction in any period of 24 consecutive hours. The ATP may not instruct for more than 8 hours in one day nor more than 36 hours in a 7-day period.
The holder of a Flight Instructor Certificate may not endorse a Student Pilot Certificate for solo cross-country flight privileges unless he/she has given that student pilot flight instruction required by this part for the endorsement and considers that the student is prepared to conduct the flight safely with the aircraft involved. Neither may he/she endorse a student pilot's logbook for local solo flight unless he/she has given that student pilot flight instruction and found that student pilot prepared for solo flight in the type of aircraft involved.
The holder of a Flight Instructor Certificate may not authorize a student to make a solo flight unless he/she possesses a valid Student Pilot Certificate endorsed for solo in the make and model aircraft to be flown.
The holder of a Flight Instructor Certificate may not give flight instruction required for the issuance of a certificate or a category, or class rating in a multi-engine airplane or a helicopter unless he/she has had at least 5 hours of experience as pilot-in-command in the make and model of that airplane or helicopter, as the case may be.
The holder of a Flight Instructor Certificate may have his/her certificate renewed for an additional period of 24 months if he/she passes the practical test for a Flight Instructor Certificate and the rating involved, or those portions of that test that the Administrator considers necessary to determine his/her competency as a flight instructor.
The Flight Instructor certificate may be renewed without taking the practical test if the record of instruction shows that he/she is a competent flight instructor or he/she completes an instructor refresher course within 3 months of the application for renewal.
The holder of an expired Flight Instructor Certificate may exchange that certificate for a new certificate by passing the practical test prescribed in 14 CFR §61.187. He/she may not renew it by any other means.
A person who holds a basic ground instructor rating is authorized to provide ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of a recreational or private pilot certificate, ground training required for a recreational and private pilot flight review, and a recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of a recreational or private pilot certificate.
A person who holds an advanced ground instructor rating is authorized to provide ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for the issuance of any certificate or rating, ground training for any flight review, and a recommendation for a knowledge test required for the issuance of any certificate.
A person who holds an instrument ground instructor rating is authorized to provide ground training in the aeronautical knowledge areas required for an instrument rating, ground training required for an instrument proficiency check, and a recommendation for a knowledge test required for an instrument rating.
The holder of a ground instructor certificate may not perform the duties of a ground instructor unless, within the preceding 12 months, the person has served for at least 3 months as a ground instructor, or the person has received an endorsement from an authorized ground or flight instructor certifying that the person has demonstrated satisfactory proficiency in the subject areas required for a ground instructor.
Flight Instruction, Reviews and Records
All time logged as flight training, instrument flight training, pilot ground trainer training, or ground training time must be certified by an appropriately rated and certificated instructor from whom it was received.
No person may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft unless, within the preceding 24 calendar months, that person has accomplished a flight review, in an aircraft for which he/she is rated, by an appropriately certificated instructor or other person designated by the Administrator, and has had his/her logbook endorsed by that person who gave him/her the review certifying that he/she has satisfactorily accomplished the flight review.
The flight review consists of a minimum of 1 hour of ground instruction and 1 hour of flight training.
The aeronautical training and experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate or rating, or the recent flight experience requirements, must be shown by a reliable record. The logging of other flight time is not required.
Required Endorsements
A student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight in Class B airspace unless:
1. The student pilot has received both ground and flight instruction from an authorized instructor in Class B airspace and the flight instruction was received in the specific Class B airspace for which solo flight is authorized.
2. The logbook of that student pilot has been endorsed within the preceding 90 days for conducting solo flight in that specific Class B airspace by the instructor who gave the flight training; and
3. The logbook endorsement specifies that the student pilot has received the required ground and flight instruction and has been found competent to conduct solo flight in that specific Class B airspace.
A person holding a Private or Commercial Pilot Certificate may not act as pilot-in-command of an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, or that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable propeller, unless he/she has received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who has certified in his/her logbook that he/she is competent to pilot an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower, or that has retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable propeller, as the case may be. However, this instruction is not required if he/she has logged flight time as pilot-in-command of a high-performance airplane before August 4, 1997.
No person may act as pilot-in-command of a pressurized airplane which operates above 25,000 feet MSL unless he/she has completed the training required by 14 CFR §61.31 and has his/her logbook so endorsed.
No person may act as pilot-in-command of a tail wheel airplane unless that pilot has received flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor in normal and crosswind takeoffs and landings, wheel landings, (unless the airplane manufacturer has recommended against such landings), and go around procedures in a tail wheel airplane. The instructor then makes an endorsement in the pilot's logbook certifying the pilot is competent in the above mentioned maneuvers. This endorsement is not required if the pilot has logged flight time as pilot-in-command of a tail wheel airplane prior to April 15, 1991.
A person who acts as a pilot in command of any of the following aircraft must hold a type rating for that aircraft: large aircraft, defined as any aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight (except lighter-than-air), turbojet-powered airplanes, other aircraft specified by the Administrator through aircraft type certificate procedures.
Pilot Tests
An applicant for an FAA Knowledge Exam must have proper identification at the time of application that contains the applicant's photograph, signature, date of birth, and residential address. To be eligible for a flight test for a certificate or an aircraft or instrument rating issued under this part, the applicant must have passed any required knowledge test since the beginning of the 24th month before the month in which he/she takes the flight test. The applicant must hold a current medical certificate appropriate to the certificate he/she seeks, or in the case of a rating to be added to his/her pilot certificate, at least a current Third-Class Medical Certificate. The applicant must have a written statement from an authorized instructor certifying that he/she has given the applicant flight instruction in preparation for the flight test within 60 days preceding the date of application, and finds him/her competent to pass the test and to have satisfactory knowledge of the subject areas in which he/she has shown to be deficient by his/her FAA knowledge test report.
An applicant for a knowledge or flight test who fails that test may apply for retesting upon presenting a written statement from an authorized instructor certifying that he/she has given flight or ground instruction as appropriate to the applicant and finds him/her competent to pass the test.
No person whom the Administrator finds to have committed an act prohibited by paragraph (a) of 14 CFR §61.37 is eligible for any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating or to take any test for a period of 1 year after the date of that act. In addition, the commission of that act is a basis for suspending or revoking any airman or ground instructor certificate or rating held by that person. Paragraph (a) includes:
1. Copying or intentionally removing a knowledge test
2. Giving to another, or receiving from another, any part or copy of that test
3. Giving help on that test to, or receiving help on that test from any person during the period that test is being given
4. Taking any part of that test in behalf of another person
5. Using any material or aid during the period that test is being given.
Presolo Requirements
Before being authorized to fly solo, a student pilot must satisfactorily complete a knowledge examination covering the appropriate portions of 14 CFR Parts 61 and 91 that are applicable to student pilots, and the flight characteristics and operational limitations for the make and model aircraft to be flown. This examination must be administered and graded by the instructor who endorses the student's pilot certificate for solo flight.
Recency of ExperienceNo person may act as pilot-in-command of any aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise (as published in the American Air Almanac) unless, within the preceding 90 days, he/she has made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings to a full stop during that period in the category, class, and type (if a type rating is required) of aircraft to be used.
No person may act as pilot-in-command of any aircraft carrying passengers, or of an aircraft certificated for more than one required pilot flight crewmember, unless, within the preceding 90 days, he/she has made at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings as the sole manipulator of the flight controls in an aircraft of the same category and class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type. If the aircraft is a tail wheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop in a tail wheel airplane.
A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.
Change of Permanent Mailing Address
The holder of a Pilot or Flight Instructor Certificate who has made a change in his/her permanent mailing address may not, after 30 days from the date he/she moved, exercise the privileges of his/her certificate unless he/she has notified in writing the Department of Transportation, Federal Aviation Administration, Airman Certification Branch, Box 25082, Oklahoma City, OK 73125 of his/her new address.
Glider TowingNo pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft towing a glider unless that person
Holds at least a private pilot certificate with a category rating for powered aircraft;
Has logged at least 100 hours PIC in the aircraft category/class/type being used for the tow;
Has a logbook endorsement certifying ground and flight training in gliders;
Has logged 3 flights as the sole manipulator of the controls under a qualified tow pilot's supervision.
The holder of a glider rating issued prior to August 4, 1997, is considered to be in compliance with the training and logbook endorsement requirements of this paragraph for the specific operating privilege for which the holder is already qualified.
Emergency Deviation from Rules
In an emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot-in-command of an aircraft may deviate from the Federal Aviation Regulations to the extent required to meet that emergency.
Each pilot-in-command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall, if requested by ATC, submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the chief of that ATC facility.
Preflight Planning
Each pilot-in-command shall, before beginning a flight, become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. This includes, for a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which he/she has been advised by ATC. For any flight, pilots should become familiar with runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the appropriate takeoff and landing distance information. Flotation gear must be readily accessible to each occupant in the aircraft if a flight is being conducted for hire over water and beyond power-off gliding distance from shore.
Use of Seatbelts
During takeoff and landing, and while en route, each required flight crewmember shall be at his/her station unless his/her absence is necessary in the performance of duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft or in connection with physiological needs, and keep the seatbelt fastened while at his/her station.
No person may take off or land a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except balloons that incorporate baskets or gondolas and airships) unless the pilot-in-command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board has been notified to fasten his/her safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed.
Alcohol and Drugs
Except in an emergency, no pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who appears to be intoxicated or who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs (except a medical patient under proper care) to be carried in that aircraft.
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage or while having .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
A conviction for the violation of any Federal or state statute relating to the growing, processing, manufacture, sale, disposition, possession, transportation, or importation of narcotic drugs, marijuana, or depressant or stimulant drugs or substances is grounds for: (1) denial of an application for any certificate or rating issued under 14 CFR Part 61 for a period of up to 1 year after the date of final conviction; or (2) suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating issued under 14 CFR Part 61.
Parachutes
Unless each occupant of the aircraft is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft, carrying any person (other than a crewmember), may execute any intentional maneuver that exceeds a bank of 60° relative to the horizon, or a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30° relative to the horizon. This does not apply to spins and other maneuvers required for a certificate or rating if given by a certified flight instructor.
No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a parachute that is available for emergency use to be carried in that aircraft unless it is an approved type and if a chair-type (canopy in back), it has been packed by a certificated and appropriately-rated parachute rigger within the preceding 120 days.
Safety Pilot Requirements
No person may operate a civil aircraft in simulated instrument flight unless that aircraft has fully functioning dual controls, and an appropriately-rated pilot occupies the other seat as safety pilot.
Fuel Reserve Requirements
No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, during daylight, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes. At night, the required amount of reserve is enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, at night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.
Transponder Requirements
A coded transponder with altitude reporting capability is required for flight in all airspace of the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL and below the floor of a Class A airspace, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.
ATC may authorize deviations on a continuing basis, or for individual flights, for operations of aircraft without a transponder, in which case the request for a deviation must be submitted to the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace concerned at least 1 hour before the proposed operation.
Minimum Equipment Lists
An aircraft can be operated with inoperative instruments or equipment under the provisions of a Minimum Equipment List (MEL) if the aircraft has within it a letter of authorization, issued by the FAA Flight Standards District Office having jurisdiction over the area in which the operator is located, authorizing operation of the aircraft under the Minimum Equipment List. The MEL lists the equipment that can be inoperative and still not affect the airworthiness of the aircraft.
Supplemental Oxygen
No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant of the aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen. When operating above 12,500 feet MSL, up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, the flight crew must be provided with and use oxygen for that time that is more than 30 minutes duration.
Lighting Requirements
Aircraft operating under night VFR must have an approved aviation red or aviation white anticollision light system. No person may, during the period from sunset to sunrise, operate an aircraft unless it has lighted position lights. No person may, during the period from to sunset to sunrise, park or move an aircraft in a night-flight operation area of an airport unless the aircraft is clearly illuminated, has lighted position lights, or is in an area which is marked by obstruction lights.
Aircraft on the ground and in the air, and vehicles on the airport, can be controlled from the tower by light signals. The meaning of the various signals is shown in the table in Figure 8-1.
Figure 8-1. Light signals from the tower
Emergency Locator Transmitter
Aircraft, while engaged in training operations conducted entirely within a 50-mile radius of the airport from which local flight operation began, are not required to have an Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) installed.
Batteries used in the emergency locator transmitters must be replaced (or recharged, if the battery is rechargeable) when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. The new expiration date for the replacement (or recharge) of the battery must be legibly marked on the outside of the emergency locator transmitter and entered in the aircraft maintenance record.
No person may operate the aircraft more than 90 days after the ELT is initially removed from the aircraft for maintenance. ELTs must be inspected within 12 calendar months after the last inspection for (1) proper installation, (2) battery corrosion, (3) operation of the controls and crash sensor, and (4) the presence of a sufficient signal radiated from its antenna.
Formation Flights and Right-of-Way
No person may operate an aircraft, carrying passengers for hire, in formation flight.
Aircraft, while on final approach to land, or while landing, have the right-of-way over other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is on final approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right.
Maximum Authorized Speeds
Unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots (288 MPH). Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within 4 NM of Class C or D airspace at an Indicated Airspeed (IAS) of more than 200 knots (230 MPH). No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through a Class B airspace at an Indicated Airspeed of more than 200 knots (230 MPH).
Acrobatic Flight
Acrobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration not necessary for normal flight. No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface, nor when flight visibility is less than 3 miles.
Distance from Obstructions
No person shall operate an aircraft over a congested area below an altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft. No person shall operate an aircraft over a sparsely populated area any closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft anywhere below an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
Flight Plan Airspeed
The flight plan should include the cruising altitude (or flight level) and the true airspeed for that altitude.
Flight from Noncontrolled Airports
Any person departing an airport without an operating control tower shall comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for that airport.
VFR Cruising Altitudes
Cruising altitudes to be used when operating VFR above 3,000 feet AGL are based on the magnetic course being flown. While operating VFR above 3,000 feet AGL, but below 18,000 feet MSL, an aircraft flying a magnetic course between 000° and 179° inclusive shall fly at odd thousands plus 500 feet. An aircraft flying a magnetic course between 180° and 359° inclusive shall fly at even thousands plus 500 feet.
Maintenance, Preventive Maintenance and Alterations
No person may operate an aircraft, unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, it has had an annual inspection in accordance with Part 43 of the regulations and has been approved for return to service by a person authorized by §43.7 of the regulations.
No inspection performed may be substituted for an annual inspection unless it is performed by a person authorized to perform annual inspections and is entered as an "annual" inspection in the required maintenance records. If an annual inspection is performed on July 12, this year, the next annual will be due no later than July 31, next year.
No person may operate an aircraft carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire, and no person may give flight instruction for hire in an aircraft which that person provides, unless within the preceding 100 hours of time in service it has received an annual or 100-hour inspection and has been approved for return to service in accordance with Part 43 of the regulations. The 100-hour limit may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to reach a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours' time in service.
An Airworthiness Directive is a regulatory notice sent out by the Federal Aviation Administration to the registered owner of an aircraft informing him/her of the discovery of a condition that keeps his/her aircraft from continuing to meet its conditions for airworthiness. It is the responsibility of the owner or operator of an aircraft to maintain that aircraft in an airworthy condition, including compliance with all Airworthiness Directives within the required time limit. The fact of compliance, the date of compliance, and the method of compliance must be recorded in the aircraft maintenance records.
No person may carry any person (other than crewmembers) in an aircraft that has been maintained, rebuilt, or altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately-rated pilot with at least a Private Pilot Certificate flies the aircraft, makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made, and logs the flight in the aircraft records.
No person may use an ATC transponder unless within the preceding 24 calendar months it has been tested and inspected and found to comply with Appendix F of Part 43 of the regulations.
Rotorcraft Regulations
Helicopters may be operated at less than the minimums prescribed for other aircraft if the operation is conducted without hazard to persons or property on the surface. When the visibility is less than 1 mile during day hours or less than 3 miles during night hours, a helicopter may be operated clear of clouds if operated at a speed that allows the pilot adequate opportunity to see any air traffic or obstruction in time to avoid a collision. A helicopter may be operated within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of class B, C, D or E airspace designated for an airport at night under special VFR if it remains clear of clouds. The restrictions that apply to the aircraft being equipped for IFR flight do not apply to helicopters.
No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless (considering wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.
Problem:
According to 14 CFR Part 91, how much farther can a rotorcraft be flown under VFR?
Usable fuel at takeoff............................................36 gallons
Fuel consumption rate............................................12.4 gal/hr
Constant ground speed............................................140 knots
Flight time since takeoff............................................48 minutes
Solution:
1. Divide the usable fuel at takeoff by the fuel consumption rate to find the length of time the fuel will allow you to fly.
36 ÷12.4 = 2.9 hours, or 2 hours and 54 minutes
2. You have already flown for 48 minutes, so you have enough fuel left for 2 hours and 6 minutes.
2:54 - 0:48 = 2:06
3. Allowing for the required 20 minutes of reserve fuel, you have 1 hour and 46 minutes of usable fuel.
2:06 - 0:20 = 1:46
4. In 1 hour and 46 minutes (1.77 hours), at a ground speed of 140 knots, this fuel will carry you for 247 nautical miles.
140 x 1.77 = 247 NM
All aircraft operating in Class C airspace must have an operable two-way radio and a transponder with altitude reporting capability.
To be eligible for a Student Pilot Certificate limited to helicopters, an applicant must be at least 16 years of age. An applicant for a Private Pilot Certificate with a rotorcraft category and helicopter class rating must have at least the following aeronautical experience: A minimum of 40 hours of flight instruction and solo flight time in aircraft, 19 of which must be in helicopters. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with a rotorcraft category rating and a helicopter class rating must have at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, including at least 100 hours in powered aircraft, 50 hours of which must be in a helicopter.
Gyroplane Regulations
To be eligible for a Student Pilot Certificate limited to gyroplanes, an applicant must be at least 16 years of age. An applicant for a Private Pilot Certificate with a rotorcraft category rating and a gyroplane class rating must have at least 40 hours of flight instruction and solo time in aircraft. He/she must have at least 10 hours of solo time, 10 hours of which must be in a gyroplane. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with a rotorcraft category rating and a gyroplane class rating must have at least 150 hours of flight time as a pilot, including at least 100 hours in powered aircraft, 25 hours of which must be in a gyroplane.
Glider Regulations
The flight review required by 14 CFR Part 61 consists of a minimum of 3 instructional flights in a glider, each of which includes a flight to traffic pattern altitude, and 1 hour of ground instruction; or 1 hour of flight instruction in a glider and 1 hour of ground instruction.
To be eligible for a Student Pilot Certificate limited to gliders, an applicant must be at least 14 years of age. An applicant for a category rating to be added on his/her pilot certificate must meet the requirements for the issuance of the pilot certificate appropriate to the privileges for which the category rating is sought. But, the holder of a category rating for powered aircraft is not required to take a knowledge test for the addition of a glider rating on his/her pilot certificate. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Certificate with a glider rating must have at least 25 hours as pilot in gliders and 100 glider flights as pilot in command.
An applicant for an initial Glider Flight Instructor Certificate must have received flight instruction from a flight instructor who has held a Flight Instructor Certificate during the 24 months immediately preceding the date the instruction is given, who meets the general requirements for a Flight Instructor Certificate, and who has given at least 80 hours of glider flight instruction.
Procedures and Airport Operations
Table of Contents
- Airspace
- Basic VFR Weather Minimums
- VHF Direction Finder
- Operations on Wet or Slippery Runways
- Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)
- Airport Marking Aids and Signs
- VFR Cruising Altitudes
- Collision Avoidance
- Fitness Physiology
- Aeronautical Decision Making
Airspace
Figure 5-1. AirspaceControlled airspace, that is, airspace within which some or all aircraft may be subject to air traffic control, consists of those areas designated as Class A, Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E airspace.
Much of the controlled airspace begins at either 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the ground. The 700-foot lateral limits and floors of Class E airspace are defined by a magenta vignette; while the 1,200-foot lateral limits and floors are defined by a blue vignette if it abuts uncontrolled airspace. Floors other than 700 feet or 1,200 feet are shown by a number indicating the floor.
Class A -- Class A airspace extends from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including FL600 and is not depicted on VFR sectional charts. No flight under visual flight rules (VFR), including VFR-On-Top, is authorized in Class A airspace.
Class B -- Class B airspace consists of controlled airspace extending upward from the surface or higher to specified altitudes. Each Class B airspace sector, outlined in blue on the sectional aeronautical chart, is labeled with its delimiting altitudes. On the Terminal Area Chart, each Class B airspace sector is also outlined in blue and labeled with its delimiting arcs, radials, and altitudes. Each Class B airspace location will contain at least one primary airport. An ATC clearance is required prior to operating within Class B airspace.
A pilot landing or taking off from one of a group of 12 specific, busy airports must hold at least a Private Pilot Certificate. At other airports, a student pilot may not operate an aircraft on a solo flight within Class B airspace or to, from, or at an airport located within Class B airspace unless both ground and flight instruction has been received from an authorized instructor to operate within that Class B airspace or at that airport, and the flight and ground instruction has been received within that Class B airspace or at the specific airport for which the solo flight is authorized. The student's logbook must be endorsed within the preceding 90 days by the instructor who gave the flight training and the endorsement must specify that the student has been found competent to conduct solo flight operations in that Class B airspace or at that specific airport.
Each airplane operating within Class B airspace must be equipped with a two-way radio with appropriate ATC frequencies, and a 4096 code transponder with Mode C automatic altitude-reporting capability.
Class C -- Class C airspace is controlled airspace surrounding designated airports within which ATC provides radar vectoring and sequencing for all IFR and VFR aircraft. Each airplane operating within Class C airspace must be equipped with a two-way radio with appropriate frequencies and a 4096 code transponder with Mode C automatic altitude-reporting capability. Communications with ATC must be established prior to entering Class C airspace.
Class C airspace consists of two circles, both centered on the primary airport. The surface area has a radius of 5 NM. The airspace of the surface area normally extends from the surface of Class C airspace airport up to 4,000 feet above that airport. Some situations require different boundaries. The shelf area has a radius of 10 NM. The airspace between the 5 and 10 NM rings begins at a height of 1,200 feet and extends to the same altitude cap as the inner circle. An outer area with a normal radius of 20 NM surrounds the surface and shelf areas. Within the outer area, pilots are encouraged to participate but it is not a VFR requirement.
Class C airspace service to aircraft proceeding to a satellite airport will be terminated at a sufficient distance to allow time to change to the appropriate tower or advisory frequency. Aircraft departing satellite airports within Class C airspace shall establish two-way communication with ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. On aeronautical charts, Class C airspace is depicted by solid magenta lines.
Class D -- Class D airspace extends upward from the surface to approximately 2,500 feet AGL (the actual height is as needed). Class D airspace may include one or more airports and is normally 4 NM in radius. The actual size and shape is depicted by a blue dashed line and numbers showing the top. When the ceiling of Class D airspace is less than 1,000 feet and/or the visibility is less than 3 SM, pilots wishing to takeoff or land must hold an instrument rating, must have filed an instrument flight plan, and must have received an appropriate clearance from ATC. In addition, the aircraft must be equipped for instrument flight.
At some locations, a pilot who does not hold an instrument rating may be authorized to takeoff or land when the weather is less than that required for visual flight rules. When special VFR flight is prohibited, it will be depicted by "No SVFR" above the airport information on the chart. Special VFR requires the aircraft to be operated clear of clouds with flight visibility of at least 1 SM. For Special VFR operations between sunset and sunrise, the pilot must hold an instrument rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight. Requests for Special VFR arrival or departure clearance should be directed to the airport traffic control tower.
Class E -- Magenta shading identifies Class E airspace starting at 700 feet AGL, and an area with no shading (or blue shading if next to Class G airspace) identifies Class E airspace starting at 1,200 feet AGL. It may also start at other altitudes. All airspace from 14,500 feet to 17,999 feet is Class E airspace. It also includes the surface area of some airports with an instrument approach but no control tower. An airway is a corridor of controlled airspace extending from 1,200 feet above the surface (or as designated) up to and including 17,999 feet MSL, and 4 NM either side of the centerline. The airway is indicated by a centerline, shown in blue.
Class G -- Class G is airspace within which Air Traffic Control has neither the authority nor responsibility to exercise any control over air traffic.
Prohibited Areas are blocks of airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Restricted Areas denote the presence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of Restricted Areas without authorization of the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.
Warning Areas contain the same hazardous activities as those found in Restricted Areas, but are located in international airspace.
Military Operations Areas (MOAs) consist of airspace established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from instrument flight rules (IFR) traffic. Pilots operating under VFR should exercise extreme caution while flying within an active MOA. Any Flight Service Station (FSS) within 100 miles of the area will provide information concerning MOA hours of operation. Prior to entering an active MOA, pilots should contact the controlling agency for traffic advisories.
Alert Areas may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. Pilots of participating aircraft, as well as pilots transiting the area, are equally responsible for collision avoidance.
Airport Advisory Area is the area within 10 statute miles of an airport where a control tower is not in operation but where a Flight Service Station (FSS) is located. The FSS provides advisory service to aircraft arriving and departing. It is not mandatory for pilots to use the advisory service, but it is strongly recommended that they do so.
Aircraft are requested to remain at least 2,000 feet above the surface of National Parks, National Monuments, Wilderness and Primitive Areas, and National Wildlife Refuges.
Military Training Routes (MTRs) have been developed for use by the military for the purpose of conducting low-altitude, high-speed training. Generally, MTRs are established below 10,000 feet MSL for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots.
IFR Military Training Routes (IR) operations are conducted in accordance with instrument flight rules, regardless of weather conditions. VFR Military Training Routes (VR) operations are conducted in accordance with visual flight rules. IR and VR at and below 1,500 feet AGL (with no segment above 1,500) will be identified by four digit numbers, e.g., VR1351, IR1007. IR and VR above and below 1,500 feet AGL (segments of these routes may be below 1,500) will be identified by three digit numbers, e.g., IR341, VR426.
Basic VFR Weather Minimums
Rules governing flight under visual flight rules (VFR) have been adopted to assist the pilot in meeting his/her responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft. Minimum weather conditions and distance from clouds required for VFR flight are listed in Figure 5-2.
When operating within a Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport, the ceiling must not be less than 1,000 feet. If the pilot intends to land, take off, or enter a traffic pattern at an airport within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport, the ground visibility must be at least 3 miles at that airport. If ground visibility is not reported, 3 miles flight visibility is required.
Figure 5-2. Basic VFR weather minimums
VHF Direction Finder
Many flight service stations have equipment that determines the direction to an aircraft which is transmitting a particular VHF frequency. Availability of this service at a particular airport is shown by the notation vhf/df in the Airport/Facility Directory (a/fd). The only airborne equipment required to obtain vhf/df service is an operating VHF transmitter and receiver.
Operations on Wet or Slippery Runways
When taking off from a slippery runway, delay full-power checks until the aircraft is lined up on the runway and ready for takeoff.
After takeoff from a slushy runway, the landing gear should be cycled up and down to minimize the possibility of the gear being frozen in the up position.
Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)
LAHSO is an acronym for "Land And Hold Short Operations." These operations include landing and holding short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point on a runway other than an intersecting runway or taxiway. LAHSO is an air traffic control procedure that requires pilot participation to balance the needs for increased airport capacity and system efficiency, consistent with safety. Student pilots or pilots not familiar with LAHSO should not participate in the program. The pilot-in-command has the final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance. The safety and operation of the aircraft remain the responsibility of the pilot. Pilots are expected to decline a LAHSO clearance if they determine it will compromise safety. Available Landing Distance (ALD) data are published in the special notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD) and in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications. Pilots should only receive a LAHSO clearance when there is a minimum ceiling of 1,000 feet and 3 statute miles visibility. The intent of having "basic" VFR weather conditions is to allow pilots to maintain visual contact with other aircraft and ground vehicle operations.
Airport Marking Aids and Signs
You must be familiar with the markings and signs used at airports, which provide directions and assist pilots in airport operations. Chapter 12 of the Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge (FAA-H-8083-25) and Chapter 2, Section 3 of the Aeronautical Information Manual are excellent resources for learning this subject. Some of the most common markings and signs are included in the Commercial Pilot Computer Testing Supplement (CT-8080-1C) that shipped with this Test Prep. You can expect questions that will test your knowledge of Figures 56 through 65:
Figure 56 #1 depicts an outbound destination sign, which defines directions to takeoff runways. #2 is a mandatory instruction sign, typically used as a holding position sign at the beginning of takeoff runways.
Figure 57 depict direction and destination signs, which provide information on locating areas such as runways, terminals, cargo areas, and the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection.
Figure 58 shows an airport diagram with a mandatory instruction sign. This sign denotes an entrance to a runway, a critical area, or a prohibited area. It is frequently used as a taxiway/runway hold position sign.
Figure 59 shows a taxiway diagram and a direction sign array, which identifies location in conjunction with multiple intersecting taxiways. When more than one taxiway designation is shown on the sign, each designation and its associated arrow is separated from the other taxiway designations by either a vertical message divider or a taxiway location sign.
Figure 60 #1 is a taxiway ending marker, which indicates the taxiway does not continue. #2 is a direction sign array, which identifies location in conjunction with multiple intersecting taxiways.
Figure 61 is a direction sign array, with the boxed A in the middle being the taxiway location sign.
Figure 62 is a direction sign array without a location sign included. Direction signs have a yellow background with a black inscription. The black inscription identifies the designation(s) of the intersecting taxiway(s) leading out of the intersection that a pilot would normally be expected to turn onto or hold short of. Each designation is accompanied by an arrow indicating the direction of the turn.
Figure 63 is a direction sign array, with the boxed A in the middle being the taxiway location sign. Orientation of signs are from left to right in a clockwise manner. Left turn signs are on the left of the location sign and right turn signs are on the right side of the location sign.
Figure 64 is a mandatory instruction sign. It is a runway/runway hold position sign, which includes where you must hold short of intersecting runway.
Figure 65 is a taxiway ending marker, which indicates the taxiway does not continue.
VFR Cruising Altitudes
When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight more than 3,000 feet above the surface and below 18,000 feet MSL, a pilot is required to maintain an appropriate altitude in accordance with certain rules. This requirement is sometimes called the "Hemispherical Cruising Rule," and is based on magnetic course. See Figure 5-3.
Figure 5-3. VFR cruising altitudes
Collision Avoidance
Vision is the most important physical sense for safe flight. Two major factors that determine how effectively vision can be used are the level of illumination, and the technique of scanning the sky for other aircraft.
Scanning the sky for other aircraft is a key factor in collision avoidance. Pilots must develop an effective scanning technique, one that maximizes visual capabilities. Because the eyes focus on only a narrow viewing area, effective scanning is accomplished by systematically focusing with a series of short, regularly-spaced eye movements. Each movement should not exceed 10°, and each area should be observed for at least one second. At night, scan slowly to permit off-center viewing (peripheral vision). Prior to starting any maneuver, a pilot should visually scan the entire area for other aircraft. Any aircraft that appears to have no relative motion and stays in one scan quadrant is likely to be on a collision course. If a target shows neither lateral or vertical motion, but increases in size, take evasive action.
When climbing or descending VFR on an airway, execute gentle banks, right and left, to provide for visual scanning of the airspace. Particular vigilance should be exercised when operating in areas where aircraft tend to converge, such as near airports and over VOR stations.
Atmospheric haze reduces the ability to see traffic or terrain during flight, making all features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
In preparation for a night flight, the pilot should avoid bright white lights for at least 30 minutes before the flight.
Fitness Physiology
Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by a number of physiological factors. While some of the factors may be beyond the control of the pilot, awareness of cause and effect will minimize any adverse effects. The body has no built-in alarm system to alert the pilot of many of these factors.
Hypoxia, a state of oxygen deficiency (insufficient supply), impairs functions of the brain and other organs. Headache, sleepiness, dizziness, and euphoria are all symptoms of hypoxia. For optimum protection, pilots should avoid flying above 10,000 feet MSL for prolonged periods without breathing supplemental oxygen. Federal Aviation Regulations, Part 91 require that when operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used by the minimum flight crew during that time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. Every occupant of the aircraft must be provided with supplemental oxygen above 15,000 feet. If under the effects of hypoxia, time of useful consciousness decreases with altitude.
If rapid decompression occurs in a pressurized aircraft above 30,000 feet, a pilot's time of useful consciousness is about 30 seconds. During a rapid decompression at high altitudes, the pilot should don the oxygen mask and begin a rapid descent to an appropriate lower altitude.
Aviation breathing oxygen should be used to replenish an aircraft oxygen system for high altitude flight. Oxygen used for medical purposes or welding should not be used because it may contain too much water. The excess water could condense and freeze in oxygen lines when flying at high altitudes, and this could block oxygen flow. Also, constant use of oxygen containing too much water may cause corrosion in the system. Specifications for "aviator's breathing oxygen" are 99.5% pure oxygen and not more than .005 mg. of water per liter of oxygen. Never use grease- or oil-covered hands, rags or tools while working with oxygen systems.
Hyperventilation, a deficiency (insufficient supply) of carbon dioxide within the body, can be the result of rapid or extra deep breathing due to emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. The common symptoms of hyperventilation include drowsiness, and tingling of the hands, legs and feet. A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by talking aloud, breathing into a bag, or slowing the breathing rate.
Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas contained in exhaust fumes. Symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning include headache, drowsiness, or dizziness. Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in a loss of muscular power. Susceptibility to hypoxia due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as altitude increases. A pilot who detects symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning should immediately shut off the heater and open the air vents.
Various complex motions, forces, and visual scenes encountered in flight may result in various sensory organs sending misleading information to the brain. Spatial disorientation may result if these body signals are used to interpret flight attitude. The best way to overcome spatial disorientation is by relying on aircraft instrument indications rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
Extensive research has provided a number of facts about the hazards of alcohol consumption and flying. Even a small amount of alcohol present in the human body can impair flying skills, judgment and decision-making abilities. Alcohol also renders a pilot much more susceptible to disorientation and hypoxia. The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crew member duties within 8 hours after drinking any alcoholic beverage (bottle to throttle) or while under the influence of alcohol. However, due to the slow destruction of alcohol, a pilot may still be under influence more than 8 hours after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol.
Aeronautical Decision Making
Aeronautical decision making (ADM) is a systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.
Risk Management is the part of the decision making process which relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment to reduce risks associated with each flight.
The ADM process addresses all aspects of decision making in the cockpit and identifies the steps involved in good decision making. Steps for good decision making are:
1. Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
2. Learning behavior modification techniques.
3. Learning how to recognize and cope with stress.
4. Developing risk assessment skills.
5. Using all resources in a multicrew situation.
6. Evaluating the effectiveness of one's ADM skills.
There are a number of classic behavioral traps into which pilots have been known to fall. Pilots, particularly those with considerable experience, as a rule always try to complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and generally demonstrate that they have the "right stuff." These tendencies ultimately may lead to practices that are dangerous and often illegal, and may lead to a mishap. All experienced pilots have fallen prey to, or have been tempted by, one or more of these tendencies in their flying careers. These dangerous tendencies or behavior patterns, which must be identified and eliminated, include:
Peer Pressure. Poor decision making based upon emotional response to peers rather than evaluating a situation objectively.
Mind Set. The inability to recognize and cope with changes in the situation different from those anticipated or planned.
Get-There-Itis. This tendency, common among pilots, clouds the vision and impairs judgment by causing a fixation on the original goal or destination combined with a total disregard for any alternative course of action.
Duck-Under Syndrome. The tendency to sneak a peek by descending below minimums during an approach. Based on a belief that there is always a built-in "fudge" factor that can be used or on an unwillingness to admit defeat and shoot a missed approach.
Scud Running. Pushing the capabilities of the pilot and the aircraft to the limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain while trying to avoid physical contact with it. This attitude is characterized by the old pilot's joke: "If it's too bad to go IFR, we'll go VFR."
Continuing Visual Flight Rules (VFR) into instrument conditions often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles. It is even more dangerous if the pilot is not instrument qualified or current.
Getting Behind the Aircraft. Allowing events or the situation to control your actions rather than the other way around. Characterized by a constant state of surprise at what happens next.
Loss of Positional or Situation Awareness. Another case of getting behind the aircraft which results in not knowing where you are, an inability to recognize deteriorating circumstances, and/or the misjudgment of the rate of deterioration.
Operating Without Adequate Fuel Reserves. Ignoring minimum fuel reserve requirements, either VFR or Instrument Flight Rules (IFR), is generally the result of overconfidence, lack of flight planning, or ignoring the regulations.
Descent Below the Minimum Enroute Altitude. The duck-under syndrome (mentioned above) manifesting itself during the enroute portion of an IFR flight.
Flying Outside the Envelope. Unjustified reliance on the (usually mistaken) belief that the aircraft's high performance capability meets the demands imposed by the pilot's (usually overestimated) flying skills.
Neglect of Flight Planning, Preflight Inspections, Checklists, Etc. Unjustified reliance on the pilot's short and long term memory, regular flying skills, repetitive and familiar routes, etc.
Each ADM student should take the Self-Assessment Hazardous Attitude Inventory Test in order to gain a realistic perspective on his/her attitudes toward flying. The inventory test requires the pilot to provide a response which most accurately reflects the reasoning behind his/her decision. The pilot must choose one of the five given reasons for making that decision, even though the pilot may not consider any of the five choices acceptable. The inventory test presents extreme cases of incorrect pilot decision making in an effort to introduce the five types of hazardous attitudes.
ADM addresses the following five hazardous attitudes:
1. Antiauthority (don't tell me!). This attitude is found in people who do not like anyone telling them what to do. In a sense they are saying "no one can tell me what to do." They may be resentful of having someone tell them what to do or may regard rules, regulations, and procedures as silly or unnecessary. However, it is always your prerogative to question authority if you feel it is in error. The antidote for this attitude is: Follow the rules. They are usually right.
2. Impulsivity (do something quickly!) is the attitude of people who frequently feel the need to do something -- anything -- immediately. They do not stop to think about what they are about to do, they do not select the best alternative, and they do the first thing that comes to mind. The antidote for this attitude is: Not so fast. Think first.
3. Invulnerability (it won't happen to me). Many people feel that accidents happen to others, but never to them. They know accidents can happen, and they know that anyone can be affected. They never really feel or believe that they will be personally involved. Pilots who think this way are more likely to take chances and increase risk. The antidote for this attitude is: It could happen to me.
4. Macho (I can do it). Pilots who are always trying to prove that they are better than anyone else are thinking "I can do it -- I'll show them." Pilots with this type of attitude will try to prove themselves by taking risks in order to impress others. While this pattern is thought to be a male characteristic, women are equally susceptible. The antidote for this attitude is: taking chances is foolish.
5. Resignation (what's the use?). Pilots who think "what's the use?" do not see themselves as being able to make a great deal of difference in what happens to them. When things go well, the pilot is apt to think that's good luck. When things go badly, the pilot may feel that "someone is out to get me," or attribute it to bad luck. The pilot will leave the action to others, for better or worse. Sometimes, such pilots will even go along with unreasonable requests just to be a "nice guy." The antidote for this attitude is: I'm not helpless. I can make a difference.
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgment can be effectively counteracted by redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken. Recognition of hazardous thoughts is the first step in neutralizing them in the ADM process. Pilots should become familiar with a means of counteracting hazardous attitudes with an appropriate antidote thought. When a pilot recognizes a thought as hazardous, the pilot should label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding antidote.
If you hope to succeed at reducing stress associated with crisis management in the air or with your job, it is essential to begin by making a personal assessment of stress in all areas of your life. Good cockpit stress management begins with good life stress management. Many of the stress coping techniques practiced for life stress management are not usually practical in flight. Rather, you must
condition yourself to relax and think rationally when stress appears. The following checklist outlines some thoughts on cockpit stress management.
1. Avoid situations that distract you from flying the aircraft.
2. Reduce your workload to reduce stress levels. This will create a proper environment in which to make good decisions.
3. If an emergency does occur, be calm. Think for a moment, weigh the alternatives, then act.
4. Maintain proficiency in your aircraft; proficiency builds confidence. Familiarize yourself thoroughly with your aircraft, its systems, and emergency procedures.
5. Know and respect your own personal limits.
6. Do not let little mistakes bother you until they build into a big thing. Wait until after you land, then "debrief" and analyze past actions.
7. If flying is adding to your stress, either stop flying or seek professional help to manage your stress within acceptable limits.
The DECIDE Model, comprised of a six-step process, is intended to provide the pilot with a logical way of approaching decision making. The six elements of the DECIDE Model represent a continuous loop decision process which can be used to assist a pilot in the decision making process when he/she is faced with a change in a situation that requires a judgment. This DECIDE Model is primarily focused on the intellectual component, but can have an impact on the motivational component of judgment as well. If a pilot practices the DECIDE Model in all decision making, its use can become very natural and could result in better decisions being made under all types of situations.
1. Detect. The decisionmaker detects the fact that change has occurred.
2. Estimate. The decisionmaker estimates the need to counter or react to the change.
3. Choose. The decisionmaker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight.
4. Identify. The decisionmaker identifies actions which could successfully control the change.
5. Do. The decisionmaker takes the necessary action.
6. Evaluate. The decisionmaker evaluates the effect(s) of his/her action countering the change.
